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  #21 (permalink)  
Old 02-04-2008, 01:08 PM
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Originally Posted by Finny View Post
This is one of the most misunderstood clauses of the US Constitution. The scandal here isn't that slaves were counted as less than human, it's that they were treated as less than human, and giving their numbers any weight at all in a census just increased the political power of slaveholders. It was the anti-slavery side that pushed to not count slaves in the census, of course delegates from slave-states wanted to maximize their states ennumerated population and increase their representation in the House. The result of this debate was the 3/5ths compromise.
Nothing you have stated here above contradict of conflicts with anything I have posted.

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You are ignoring the fact that the North DID NOT want them counted as 1 person. As it effected the Electoral College. That would have mean good ol Abe would not have won. But at the same time the North did want them as TAXABLE property.
I ignored no fact. Of course the north did not want them (slaves) counted as a full person. THEY HAD NO VOTE, no oppertunity to affect policy in anyway. The south (and much of the north) didn’t consider them people to begin with. The South wanted to count these “non people” as population for representation, the North didn’t.
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  #22 (permalink)  
Old 02-04-2008, 01:11 PM
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Originally Posted by Grouch View Post
Nothing you have stated here above contradict of conflicts with anything I have posted.



I ignored no fact. Of course the north did not want them (slaves) counted as a full person. THEY HAD NO VOTE, no oppertunity to affect policy in anyway. The south (and much of the north) didn’t consider them people to begin with. The South wanted to count these “non people” as population for representation, the North didn’t.
Ignoring.. the Taxable part.. which was part of the 3/5ths Compromise..

Something the North wanted...
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  #23 (permalink)  
Old 02-04-2008, 01:15 PM
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Originally Posted by Finny View Post
Ignoring.. the Taxable part.. which was part of the 3/5ths Compromise..

Something the North wanted...
Which is fine, as they were property not people who had any political voice.
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Old 02-04-2008, 01:28 PM
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Originally Posted by Grouch View Post
The 3/5ths clause was rather fair. Considering the south would be relying on the population of an oppressed people to calculate their representation.
The 3/5 clause was horrible. If the south wanted slaves to count towards the population in regards to representatives, then they should have given them the right to vote. You are either a citizen or not, none of this 3/5 BS.
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Old 02-04-2008, 01:30 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Finny View Post
You are ignoring the fact that the North DID NOT want them counted as 1 person. As it effected the Electoral College. That would have mean good ol Abe would not have won. But at the same time the North did want them as TAXABLE property.

Can't have it both ways.
Actually you should here. Either they are one person or property, not some form of the two. Either they count towards population or count towards taxation. I'm glad we never have to deal with the clause again.
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Old 02-04-2008, 01:59 PM
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Originally Posted by mkfffe View Post
The 3/5 clause was horrible. If the south wanted slaves to count towards the population in regards to representatives, then they should have given them the right to vote. You are either a citizen or not, none of this 3/5 BS.
That’s part of politics and compromise of during the forming of the Union. The North wasn't about to let the South, all 6 of them, run off on its own at such a monumental time.
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Old 02-07-2008, 08:57 AM
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I can say this,every race has at one time or another been enslaved and that include the white race...
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Old 02-07-2008, 11:42 AM
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I can say this,every race has at one time or another been enslaved and that include the white race...
When have that been, only time I can think of whites have been slaves were at the hards of other whites
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  #29 (permalink)  
Old 02-09-2008, 12:14 AM
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When have that been, only time I can think of whites have been slaves were at the hards of other whites
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Old 02-19-2008, 03:17 PM
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US Civil War about slavery or 'states rights'?

US conservatives (mostly of a 'southern' persuasion) have been trying to create this argument for about 140 years now. Their reasons for making this argument are obvious, self-serving and hardly worthy of mention (and pure propaganda).

However, the Constitution of the Confederate States of America betrays them.

Article #1, section #9, paragraph #4 states...

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Originally Posted by Confederate Constitution
No bill of attainder, ex post facto law, or law denying or impairing the right of property in negro slaves shall be passed.
In other words, in the Confederacy, on the supposedly all important issue of 'states rights', the Confederate States had no rights at all when it came to slavery - slavery was mandated as permanent institution of the Confederacy and enshrined in the Constitution as such (no law may be passed that impinges upon the institution of owning slaves).

If the Civil War was all about 'states rights' then there is no way that the Confederate Constitution would legally abjure the principle of states rights. That the Confederate Constitution, passed into law on March 11, 1861, legally abjures the principle of 'states rights' shows the fallacy of the modern day revisionist attempt to pretend that the noble gentlemen of the south were only concerned about the principles of states' rights and the issue of slavery was merely incidental to the conflict.
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